Jun 03, 2010 - 10:36 am
My mother (56) was diagnosed with Ampullary Cancer, and she has undergone Whipple procedure (pancreatoduodenectomy) 2 months ago, and is getting ready to start with chemo and radio treatment.
From the beginning, none of this made any sense:
Her problems started in summer 2008 when she had seizure, and doctor said to her that she has sand in her gall bladder and stone in her kidney. I'm not even sure if that's possible, but she was prescribed some mixtures to drink which did smooth down her pain, so we thought it was over.
Then, summer 2009, pains were back, and she went to see other doctor, who told her that she has nothing in her kidney at all, and that she has stone forming in her gall bladder. She went to other doctor who then said she has nothing.
Things got messy at December 2009 when she went yellow. She was hospitalized and she had laparascopic removal of gall stones and she felt better. However, doctor who did removal took sample of some sort of greasy substance for further analysis. She was called at February 2009 for second sampling for biopsy, and later at March 2009 she got diagnosed by assembly of doctors with
Adenocarcinoma Papillae Vateri (T1N0M0).
Soon we successfully found a doctor who did Whipple procedure 8.4.2010 and after that she went on the road of recovery.
I took as much time as I had to get myself familiar with all what has happened, and T1N0M0 sounded like lucky shot in series of unfortunate events. Mother was recovering rapidly, pain, jaundice and food intolerance was gone in <1 month, and she now looks as healthy as she was before surgery.
Then, 5 days ago, we got results from patohistology and they are completely different from what was diagnosed at the start. PH results are:
Adenocarcinoma gradus II/III papillae Vateri pT4 N1 Mx R0
According to that, stage of tumor is 3/4 and lymph nodes have been severely invaded, which makes original diagnose completely wrong.
Now I wonder, how is it possible that only in ~1 month of time, tumor goes from T1N0M0 to T4N1Mx? Could it be it's that rapid? Since they've written in 1st analysis that it didn't touch wall of duodenum, but now it says it did, and it went quite into pancreas itself.
If anyone has had this kind of cancer with symptoms close like this, I would really like to hear some thoughts about what kind of prognoses we have, since, lymph nodes are involved, but on the other hand resection rate seems good (no tumor tissue has been left in nearby organs).
Also, I have a theory, that I don't even know if is possible. Considering she had almost 0% usual factors that cause this kind of tumor to occur, I'm worried (or should I say hoping) that all this was caused by chronical pancreatitis, we didn't even knew she had until PH results came. Could it be that her chronical gastritis on duodenum spread on pancreas and caused chronical pancreatitis, and due to wrong function of pancreas, it caused faulty enzymes to produce which resulted in appearence of mutated cells on ampulla?
Thanks for all responses, and I'm sorry for long post, but there is so much to write.