Feb 08, 2012 - 6:25 am
My father was diagnosed with Prostate Cancer at Stage 4, mets to the spine, Gleason score 9 (4,5)in December 2010. He had been followed by a urologist for several years prior to the cancer diagnosis for what was thought to be BPH and, about a year before his cancer diagnosis, he had a procedure whereby a laser was used to correct the urinary problems he had been having--this laser procedure was performed in lieu of a TURP so no tissue was taken for biopsy. His urologist was never concerned about Prostate cancer as a possibility because my Dad's PSA remained "normal". However, in the fall of 2010, his PSA began to rise (went from normal to around 11 in I think about 4-6 months) and his primary care physician urged the urologist to do a biopsy and cancer was found in all the tissues samples taken. Dad is now being treated with androgen deprivation therpay monthly as well as medication for pain. His last PSA value as of 3 weeks ago was 1 and it had been .8 four weeks prior to that. My first question is that, as I read this site and others, it seems like many men with advanced prostate cancer have PSAs in the hundreds or thousands yet my Dad's never got that high, leading to no medical intervention until the cancer was so advanced--why would this be? Also, I was told by an advocate from another cancer advocacy group that my Dad's PSA should be below 1 and was told by another advocate with the same organization that my Dad could be a candidate for low dose chemo along with the androgen deprivation therapy . Thuis, my second question is, since his PSA hovers around 1, should I be concerned that he needs a different treatment? Dad is happy with his oncologist and is happy with a "1" so I don't want to "upset the apple cart" but I am concerend and confused. Can any one help?