Hi, I have been coming to this site for support for my mom's recent non-hodgekin's lymphoma diagnosis (past 6 months). We now discovered my dad has a thyroid mass. So I find myself back here for possibly my dad now. Here is the run-down:
My dad who is 79 years old had some bumps on both arms and one on his right
upper thigh. He saw a general surgeon who assured us that they are all lipomas (just fat),
including the one on his right thigh. Given my mom's recent diagonsis, we
insisted that he evaluate the mass on right groin to confirm. He had an ultrasound and it showed a 7 X 17mm lymph node (to the surgeon's surprise) on
his right thigh as well as 2 other smaller ones along the inguinal area. The
surgeon also discovered that his right thyroid seemed a little large so a
thyroid ultrasound was done which showed large complex nodule measuring 5.2 X
3.7 X 4.2 cm and a large cystic component. A FNA was recommended which he had
done. The biopsy didn't go as well because a hematoma (bleeding) generated at the site and
the radiologist stopped and assured us that the 10cc she aspirated should be
sufficient for cytology. She was not able to take a speciman from the nodular
mass. The pathology report is done and it shows low cellularity with few
aggregates of follicular epithelial cells arragned predominantly in
microfollicules. And the result is labled as "follicular lesion of
undertermined significance" and a repeat FNA is recommended by the radiologist.
The surgeon, however, thinks he should have it surgically removed and biposied.
We have made appts with endorcrinologists and otolaryngologists as people are saying general surgeons are not trushtworthy for such cases.
Please help! Anyone out there recognize those key words on the biopsy report? Please give advice.