If there was a ct scan and there were no comparisons to any priors for example, and the impressions showed bone mets, would you request further testing? It's my understanding that CT scan very often mimick mets in the bones. My husbands prior bone scan/CT showed bilateral inflammatory arthritis in April 2009.
Also in April 2009 a duplex scan impression states there is no sign of any type of thrombosis yet July 2009 states right jugular vein thrombosis. How would you proceed? I've also heard this is not that uncommon in the elderly.
